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So... the top 10 percent had 0% divorce rate, the bottom 10 percent had 25% divorce rate.

Isn't overall the divorce rate is 50%? Something fishy is happening here.



Isn't overall the divorce rate is 50%?

No, that is a statistical fallacy.

http://www.nytimes.com/2005/04/19/health/19divo.html?pagewan...


"About half is still a very sensible statement" </quote> from the article you cited


Divorces per marriage may be approximately 50% (not sure).

This does not imply that (people who got divorced) / (people who got married) is 50%, and this is what the study measured.

Simple example: 3 guys have a happy first marriage. 1 guy has 3 failed marriages. Divorces/marriages = 3/6 = 50%. People who got divorced/people who got married =1/4= 25%.




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