I thought the UK decided to extradite him to Sweden for rape charges?
While Wikileaks is certainly a motivating factor, and I'm sure it's why this story gets as much press as it does, I don't think it's where his legal problems stem from. As far as I know, the US has nothing to do with it.
Then how in the world has the UK decided to extradite him to Sweden? Don't you have to be charged with something first? I'm a legal idiot, but that doesn't make much sense to me.
EDIT: Nevermind, cousin comment said he is wanted for a second round of questioning in Sweden before they actually charge him. I still don't understand how something as serious as extradition can be used for "questioning", without any charges at all.
Could some random country say they wanted to ask me something and the US would just ship me overseas involuntarily?? That is a terrifying thought.
No, the European Arrest Warrant requires an intent to prosecute. The specifics of the prosecution process (including how and when the prosecuted person is charged and what that means exactly) differ in each member state. As programmers would say, it's an "implementation detail".
While Wikileaks is certainly a motivating factor, and I'm sure it's why this story gets as much press as it does, I don't think it's where his legal problems stem from. As far as I know, the US has nothing to do with it.